[asterisk-biz] A DID question

[Matthew Rubenstein]

	I'm not sure you understand me. I'm talking about the person supposedly
opting their own phone# in, who claims authority to do so. Not the
person operating the service, who's generating and storing business
records. How does the *opted-in callee* demonstrate their authority for
registering a given phone#, other than claiming they have that authority
in a Web form or email? Do they have to fax letterhead or something
nonscaleable like that? Has this process been tested in any court? It
really does sound like I'm volunteering to be the guinea pig, which is
not my usual line of work.


On Mon, 2006-06-26 at 12:53 -0700, trixter aka Bret McDanel wrote:
> On Mon, 2006-06-26 at 15:30 -0400, Matthew Rubenstein wrote:
> > 	How do you demonstrate that the person who claimed authority in opting
> > the phone# in has that authority? Is there any actual legal precedent
> > showing the party collecting the unverified opt-in is not liable when
> > someone opts in a phone# without authority? Or am I volunteering to be
> > the guinea pig
> > 
> 
> largely business records suffice, unless shown to be doctored its
> generally ok.  There is a special requirement for computer recors,
> specifically they must be used in the normal course of business.  This
> is really getting into lawyer land, and lawyers wont give generic advice
> as a lawyer becuase there are specifics that generally need to be looked
> at, and if they do it as a lawyer then they take on a certain amount of
> liability (malpractice if its bad info).
-- 

(C) Matthew Rubenstein