[asterisk-biz] A DID question

[Matthew Rubenstein]

	How do you demonstrate that the person who claimed authority in opting
the phone# in has that authority? Is there any actual legal precedent
showing the party collecting the unverified opt-in is not liable when
someone opts in a phone# without authority? Or am I volunteering to be
the guinea pig


On Mon, 2006-06-26 at 12:28 -0700, trixter aka Bret McDanel wrote:
> On Mon, 2006-06-26 at 14:46 -0400, Matthew Rubenstein wrote:
> > 	No, I am not joking. And yes, I am talking about opt-in.
> > 
> > 	The question is what process to use to demonstrate that people have
> > opted in? Is it enough to just ask otherwise anonymous people to assert
> > that they are person paying for the phone# they're specifying to be
> > called? Does that relationship have to be verified? Who's liable if it
> > conflicts with the Do Not Call registry? In short, what is a
> > demonstrated process for letting people opt-in to specify automated
> > calling to a phone#?
> > 
> generally you need the proof that they did infact opt in.  if its a
> webpage store their IP as they do it along with whatever other info you
> get, if its via a physical paper, store or microfiche that.  Then if
> there is a dispute you can prove they did, as the burden of proof is
> actually on you.
> 
> Typically only 3rd party verification is only required if you have had
> problems in the past.
> 
> 
-- 

(C) Matthew Rubenstein