[asterisk-users] Domains
Adrian Marsh
Adrian.Marsh at ubiquisys.com
Thu May 28 03:48:03 CDT 2009
Thanks Dave and Geraint for the reply,
I'll be really specific: What does the "realm=" and the "domain=" in
sip.conf actually control?? And how do they relate into Guest INVITE
messages ?
Dave - yes you've got it pretty right:
I'm basically dialling a number (5550) from a sip client to server B and
having the call passed onto server A via guest INVITE (at least I'm
expecting it to be as a guest, but not so sure that's happening).
If I register (to B) as sip client 2001, call 1 suceeds. 2001 is
defined on server B, but NOT on server A
If I regsiter (to B) as sip client 2000, call 2 fails. 2000 is defined
on both servers.
If I turn on sip set debug ip on server A, I don't see anything
*anything* for the second call. However a tcpdump does show the
incoming INVITE.
The only obvious difference is that 2000 is actually defined on server
A. So I think that an authentication challenge is happening. If I remove
the definition on server A for client 2000, then the second call behaves
just as the first.
The extensions.conf line for server B is:
Exten => 5550,1,Dial(5550 at serverA.company.com)
What this is telling me so far, is that if my server gets an INVITE and
the client reports its username as an ID that happens to be defined on
my server, then a challenge will be sent.
Now that makes perfect sense, except in my case server B is acting as an
intermiediatory, and I would of thought that server A would see that
(via the Domain configs) - hence my questions on Domains.
For the time being, I'm ignoring why the debug on Server A shows
nothing, not even the inbound invite on the second call.
Thanks
Adrian
________________________________
From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com
[mailto:asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Dave
Walker
Sent: 27 May 2009 22:37
To: Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion
Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] Domains
I read through your question a couple of times. Basically you have
server A which has extension 2000 and 5550. Server B has extension
2000 and 2001. You configure a (soft)phone as extension 2001 and dial
5550 which succeeds but you dial 2000 and the call fails.
Have you tried turning up the debug verbosity in the console and
watching the call flow on Server B? I don't know what would prompt
Server B to try passing the call to Server A but that should become
apparent in the debug information.
If the 'domain' you are referring too his the FQDN then that has nothing
to do with the price of bread as far as I can tell.
Noone can give me a clue on this ?
How Domains are used within Asterisk ?
________________________________
From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com
[mailto:asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Adrian
Marsh
Sent: 26 May 2009 12:14
To: Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion
Subject: [asterisk-users] Domains
Hi,
I'm trying to understand an issue I'm seeing between two Asterisk
servers. I think it has to do with Domain definitions.
Server A), has extension 5550 defined. Has a sip client 2000 defined,
and has guest-invites enabled.
Server B), Dials to server A for any 5550 dialled. Has sip client 2000
and 2001 defined.
If I register at server B as client 2001, and dial 5550 then the call
works, and is placed through to server As logic successfully.
But if I call in as client 2000, then the call fails, server A shows no
log at all of the call (even a sip set debug ip <ip> showed nothing -
though tcpdump did show the inbound invite).
However if I remove the definition of client 2000 from server A, then
the call succeeds.
So I think that for a defined account server A is wanting to challenge
for a password, even though the inbound call is not a local account -
hence my trying now to understand if and how Asterisk uses Domains. If
I define a serverA.company.com domain on server A, will it ignore the
challenge for an INVITE coming from server B ??
Thanks
Adrian
________________________________
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