[asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination

[Mike]

Hi Michelle,

I have to say I am investigating this, and I realize this makes sense.  But
I am having trouble sending packets back from where they come from.  I have
setup routing policies based on networks correctly (if it comes from network
1, send it from NIC 1) but what I want is a more basic policy (if it came in
on NIC 1, send it back the same way even if it`s a less direct route).

Somebody told me to lookup Packet Mangling, which I have yet to do.  Will
probably write a wiki page about this if that works, because I don`t seem to
be the only one with this need.

Regards,

Mike


> -----Original Message-----
> From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com [mailto:asterisk-users-
> bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Michelle Dupuis
> Sent: Monday, May 31, 2010 10:21
> To: Asterisk Users List
> Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination
> 
> This isn't an Asterisk issue, it's a routing issue.  Take a look at
> iproute2 and routing policies.
> 
> Another way to view it is that Asterisk hands the communications over to
> Linux, where the network route takes over.  (The * bind statement just
> tells * what IP to listen on)
> 
> If you have 3 nic's on the same subnet, you have a routing challenge.
> Either setup static routes to the subnets/hosts you want (via certain
> NIC's),  or use iproute2 to force traffic out a certain NIC based on port,
> policies, etc.
> 
> Michelle
> 
> 
> ________________________________________
> From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com [asterisk-users-
> bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Mike [list at virtutel.ca]
> Sent: Monday, May 31, 2010 10:01 AM
> To: Asterisk Users List
> Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination
> 
> Sorry, that made no sense, just re-read your problem.
> 
> I believe Asterisk simply takes the default IP, which would in this case
be
> eth0/first IP (not the virtual IPs) as outgoing IP.
> 
> Is this a problem? It is for me, I would like to define the IP used per
> peer, but that's the way it is, at least on 1.4.  I read somewhere (can`t
> find the page) that 1.6 works differently.
> 
> Mike
> 
> From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com [mailto:asterisk-users-
> bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Mike
> Sent: Monday, May 31, 2010 9:55
> To: 'Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion'
> Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination
> 
> See  bindaddr here: http://www.voip-
> info.org/wiki/view/Asterisk+config+sip.conf
> 
> That should do exactly what you want.
> 
> Regards,
> 
> Mike
> 
> From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com [mailto:asterisk-users-
> bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of CDR
> Sent: Sunday, May 30, 2010 10:06
> To: asterisk-users at lists.digium.com
> Subject: [asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination
> 
> I have an Asterisk with multiple IP's, on the same subnet. When a call
> comes in, I need to send it back out via SIP, but need that only one IP is
> used as originating IP for all calls.
> For example
> machines has
> 192.168.50.3
> 192.168.50.4
> 192.168.50.5
> ....
> but when I originate the second leg of a call,  the IP address that is
> supposed to be read as source IP must be 192.168.50.5, regardless of how
> the call arrived.
> 
> How do I do that?
> 
> --
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