[asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination

[Mike]

Sorry, that made no sense, just re-read your problem. 

 

I believe Asterisk simply takes the default IP, which would in this case be
eth0/first IP (not the virtual IPs) as outgoing IP.

 

Is this a problem? It is for me, I would like to define the IP used per
peer, but that's the way it is, at least on 1.4.  I read somewhere (can`t
find the page) that 1.6 works differently.

 

Mike

 

From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com
[mailto:asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of Mike
Sent: Monday, May 31, 2010 9:55
To: 'Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion'
Subject: Re: [asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination

 

See  bindaddr here:
http://www.voip-info.org/wiki/view/Asterisk+config+sip.conf

 

That should do exactly what you want.

 

Regards,

 

Mike

 

From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com
[mailto:asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of CDR
Sent: Sunday, May 30, 2010 10:06
To: asterisk-users at lists.digium.com
Subject: [asterisk-users] How to use one single IP as origination

 

I have an Asterisk with multiple IP's, on the same subnet. When a call comes
in, I need to send it back out via SIP, but need that only one IP is used as
originating IP for all calls.
For example
machines has
192.168.50.3
192.168.50.4
192.168.50.5
....
but when I originate the second leg of a call,  the IP address that is
supposed to be read as source IP must be 192.168.50.5, regardless of how the
call arrived.

How do I do that?

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