[asterisk-users] Dial cellphone from one PBX1 to PBX2? is it possible?

[khalid touati]

Hi William,
I appreciate your answer, though can you make things more clear for me:
1- i am not using extensions when registering PBX boxes in IAX files.
2- is inbounx context in the call sender PBX (pbx1) and outbound context is
in the call receiver (or dialer) PBX (pbx2)?
3- i am using two identical dialplan's is this gonna confuse
the communication process (contextes's name are duplicated over the two
servers)

thank you very much for making it clear for me!

2010/1/28 William Stillwell (Lists) <william.stillwell-lists at ablebody.net>

>  Your inbound context needs to have access to your outbound context.
>
>
>
> [iax-inbound]
>
>
>
> Include => outbound-conext
>
>
>
>
>
> [outbound-context]
>
>
>
> Exten => _1NXXNXXXXXX,1,Dial(DAHDI\g1\${EXTEN})
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> Something like that.
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> *From:* asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com [mailto:
> asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com] *On Behalf Of *khalid touati
> *Sent:* Thursday, January 28, 2010 3:29 PM
> *To:* Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion
> *Subject:* [asterisk-users] Dial cellphone from one PBX1 to PBX2? is it
> possible?
>
>
>
> Hi Guys,
>
> i am using two PBX's i can call from pbx1 a cellphone tied to pbx2 that
> way:
>
> 1) use a phone in PBX1
>
> 2) call extension in PBX2
>
> 3) extensions in PBX2 ring to a cellphone (as this specific ext is tied to
> a cellphone)
>
>
>
> my questions now is : am i gonna be able to dial from an IPphone registered
> within PBX1 to a cellphone by using the Trunk (Zap or dahdi) of PBX2?
> anybody know
>
> IPphone------------->PBX1-----IAX-------->PBX2--------PRI
> line------------------->cellphone???????????
>
> thank you for you help guys!!
> --
> Abdullah
>
> --
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-- 
Abdullah
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