[Asterisk-Users] Incoming call #2 sent to VM immediately when
already on phone with incoming.
Min Hwan Chang
minchang at gmail.com
Wed Aug 10 09:48:57 MST 2005
That's a good question. I have no idea. I'm pretty new at this, so I'm
just combining bits and pieces of what I find together. If anyone
could help, it'd be greatly appreciated.
On 8/10/05, Andrew Kohlsmith <akohlsmith-asterisk at benshaw.com> wrote:
> On Tuesday 09 August 2005 18:56, Min Hwan Chang wrote:
> > I'm having this problem where if the phone is ringing from
> > IncomingCall #1, IC#2 will be immediately sent to VM. Is there
> > somethign wrong with my dial plan? I currently have 4 incoming lines
> > going into a TDM400 with the group set to g0.
>
> Yes there is something wrong with your dialplan.
>
> How does the snippet you posted get to step 6?
>
> > exten => s,1,Answer()
> > exten => s,2,Wait(1)
> > exten => s,3,Dial(${PHONE1}&${PHONE2}&${PHONE3},50,r)
> > exten => s,4,Wait(1)
> > exten => s,5,Voicemail,u203
> > exten => s,6,Voicemail,b203
> > exten => s,7,Hangup()
>
> -A.
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