[asterisk-users] Dialing vs forward - was RE: Asterisk : using setvar with IP Realtime and variable inheritance

Mike list at virtutel.ca
Thu Jun 12 07:27:21 CDT 2008


See, to get back to your answer, this is what I`m not understanding: 

> > Again, this works fine. The problem is when I forward my calls to
another
> > outside line (using Polyocm phones), and need to know the ${did} value
at
> > that point.  It's empty.
> 
> Right, so the call path is:
> 
> Provider -- Asterisk -- Polycom -- Asterisk--Provider
> 
> The problem is that Polycom is in the call path.  It doesn't know anything
> about Asterisk variables and so it doesn't pass them on [...].

I understand the Polycom doesn't know anything about my diaplan. BUT, the
Polycom, when doing it's forwading, must be dialing by using a specific
context, taking from a line registration.  That context is taken from the
sip_registration table (in my case), "context" column.  This is what it does
when I dial out, AND this is what it also seems to do when I forward.  After
all, a forward is just an automated outgoing call...

So, a normal outgoing call out of my Polycom is using the exact same context
that a forward is using.  At least, that`s my observation and my premise.
(by all means, if I am wrong somebody tell me know in what way).

What is NOT the same is that the setvar variable (did=5555551234) is taken
into account when dialing out, but not with a forward; it's empty.

Why? Is this WAD or a bug, or am I missing an obscure option in Asterisk?

Mick


 






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