[asterisk-users] Why is this happening?

[Andrew Kohlsmith]

On Monday 16 October 2006 17:26, Matt wrote:
> My question is... if both machiens are set to listen on 4569, will the
> fact that that router is mangeling the port cause any issues?

Nope.  The router should have udp/4569 forwarded to the correct server on the 
inside, so that when *it* gets a request on that port it sends it off to the 
correct server/port.

From my "sip list peers" output:
2206/2206                  216.xxx.yyy.96    D   N      15061    Unmonitored
2201/2201                  216.xxx.yyy.96    D   N      5060     Unmonitored
2200/2200                  216.xxx.yyy.96    D   N      15060    Unmonitored

As you can see, the first one that registered (2201) didn't have its source 
port mangled.  However, 2200 and 2206, both behind the same NATing router, 
had their source port mangled.  Asterisk works just fine like this, and IAX2 
is "even better" since the audio path is multiplexed on the same port.

Olle's awesome RTP patches which get symmetric RTP into Asterisk (part of 
Asterisk for quite some time now) make SIP and NAT almost stupidly easy.  
I've got installations with a dozen IP501s behind a totally-standard (and 
probably factory default configuration!) WRT54G router with *no* issues.

-A.