[Asterisk-Users] Incoming call #2 sent to VM immediately when already on phone with incoming.

Min Hwan Chang minchang at gmail.com
Wed Aug 10 09:48:57 MST 2005


That's a good question. I have no idea. I'm pretty new at this, so I'm
just combining bits and pieces of what I find together.  If anyone
could help, it'd be greatly appreciated.

On 8/10/05, Andrew Kohlsmith <akohlsmith-asterisk at benshaw.com> wrote:
> On Tuesday 09 August 2005 18:56, Min Hwan Chang wrote:
> > I'm having this problem where if the phone is ringing from
> > IncomingCall #1,  IC#2 will be immediately sent to VM.  Is there
> > somethign wrong with my dial plan?  I currently have 4 incoming lines
> > going into a TDM400 with the group set to g0.
> 
> Yes there is something wrong with your dialplan.
> 
> How does the snippet you posted get to step 6?
> 
> > exten => s,1,Answer()
> > exten => s,2,Wait(1)
> > exten => s,3,Dial(${PHONE1}&${PHONE2}&${PHONE3},50,r)
> > exten => s,4,Wait(1)
> > exten => s,5,Voicemail,u203
> > exten => s,6,Voicemail,b203
> > exten => s,7,Hangup()
> 
> -A.
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