[Asterisk-Users] RE: Sending DTMF Digits for DID

[Henry Devito]

I have this set up with Toshiba PBX with a standard T1.  It works as posted
below.

-----Original Message-----
From: asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com
[mailto:asterisk-users-bounces at lists.digium.com] On Behalf Of David
Gomillion
Sent: Tuesday, November 16, 2004 2:03 PM
To: asterisk-users at lists.digium.com
Subject: [Asterisk-Users] RE: Sending DTMF Digits for DID


> I have a legacy PBX that is currently connected to an T1 
> carrying incoming DID channels (DTMF, not PRI).  I'd like to 
> install Asterisk with two T1 cards in between the PBX and the 
> telco, and use it to split off a new block of DID numbers.  
> The remaining (old) DIDs would need to be regenerated by 
> Asterisk and sent on to the PBX.  
> 
> Basically, I want to do what David Gomillion describes: 
> http://www.loligo.com/asterisk/misc/nortel-asterisk-0.2.pdf
> 
> but without PRI (the legacy PBX doesn't support PRI without 
> $$).  Can Asterisk originate DID signalling.  (Maybe it is as 
> simple as dialing on a outgoing DID line?)
> 

I could be wrong (it's happened plenty of times), but as long as the
systems connect, then in theory you should be able to just dial the
number.

For instance, suppose Zaptel group 1 connects to the PSTN, and group 2
connects to your PBX.  You should be able to have something like:

[fromgroup1]
exten => 1024,1,Dial(Zap/g2/1024)

This would then pass through the DID to the next line.

I only have PRIs available, and only have 1 non-production server, so I
don't have a very good test bed available.  Can someone with a T1 test
this and let us know if it works as expected?

Thanks,
David Gomillion

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