<div class="gmail_quote">On Mon, Jul 20, 2009 at 12:28 PM, Anton Krall <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:akrall@intruder.com.mx">akrall@intruder.com.mx</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex;">
<div>
<font face="Calibri, Verdana, Helvetica, Arial"><span style="font-size:11pt">One thing that I noticed on the logs was this... When the user dialed 2281445498 it gave out the MF error, but then the user dialed 044-2281445498 and the call went thru... Could this error happen when a user dials a cel phone number without using the 044 first? And telmex replies with something that generates the error in order to let the PBX know that the number is a cell number and must be dialed with 044?<div class="im">
<span class="Apple-style-span" style="font-family: arial; font-size: 13px; "></span></div></span></font></div></blockquote><div><br></div><div>This is really interesting. Yes. As you can see from the log files, we start sending the first digit (2), then they ask us for the next digit (tone 1 means, send me the next digit), then we send the second digit (2 as well) and immediately they reply with tone 0, which openr2 does not recognizes. I need to check the telmex R2 specification and see if they mention the tone 0, if they don't mention the tone 0 then I will see if I can contact someone at telmex who can clarify what's that (I had the e-mail of someone who may be able to help), if not, then I will just made up a meaning for tone 0 in Group A :-), meaning "unallocated number" or something like that.</div>
<div><br></div></div>-- <div>Moises Silva<br>Software Developer<br>Sangoma Technologies Inc. | 50 McIntosh Drive, Suite 120, Markham ON L3R 9T3 Canada<br>t. 1 905 474 1990 x 128 | e. <a href="mailto:moy@sangoma.com">moy@sangoma.com</a><br>
</div>