Just want to point out that this debate is of the utmost importance for a lot of people. One of my clients has 15.000 clients all of them behind a NAT it is a nightmare to make this work. So let's make sure that it works even if it does not follow any RFC. <br>
<br><div class="gmail_quote">On Mon, Aug 9, 2010 at 9:34 AM, Simon Perreault <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:simon.perreault@viagenie.ca">simon.perreault@viagenie.ca</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin: 0pt 0pt 0pt 0.8ex; border-left: 1px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); padding-left: 1ex;">
<div class="im">On 2010-08-09 09:28, Klaus Darilion wrote:<br>
>>> and the proxy (service provider) should do NAT traversal.<br>
>><br>
>> No. In this discussion, I only care about Asterisk. It would be futile<br>
>> to impose constraints on the service provider.<br>
><br>
> Not explicit but implicit. If Asterisk is behind NAT and it does not do<br>
> any NAT traversal (because the proxy does not support RFC5626) then this<br>
> implies that the proxy has to do the NAT traversal or it wont work.<br>
<br>
</div>Yes, absolutely. The service provider has to support either standard NAT<br>
traversal (i.e. RFC 5626) or do some sort of non-standard NAT traversal<br>
if it has any expectation of working with clients that are behind NATs.<br>
This is true in any situation, not only with Asterisk.<br>
<div class="im"><br>
Simon<br>
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