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Gilmore, Gerry wrote:
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<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;">Chuck,<o:p></o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;"><o:p> </o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;">Actually,
Caller ID cannot – so far
as I know – “easily be spoofed”. While you can usually disable
sending “caller ID” by the *6x method, be aware that if you call an
800 number, that 800 number *<b><span style="font-weight: bold;">will</span></b>*
get the calling party number. It’s needed for billing the 800#
recipient.<o:p></o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;"><o:p> </o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;">With PRI, if
you have it correctly
provisioned by the carrier and they support it, etc., you can
legitimately spoof
a caller name and number, but I doubt a nurse or janitor would maintain
a PRI
line to do this. </span></font><font color="navy" face="Wingdings"
size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Wingdings; color: navy;">J</span></font><font
color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;"><o:p></o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;"><o:p> </o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;">Gerry<o:p></o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="navy" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial; color: navy;"><o:p> </o:p></span></font></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial;">There are 10 kinds of
people in the world, those who
understand binary and those who don't.</span></font><o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Times New Roman"
size="3"><span style="font-size: 12pt;"> <o:p></o:p></span></font></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial;">Gerry Gilmore</span></font><o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial;">Field Applications
Engineer</span></font><o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial;">Intel Corporation</span></font><o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Arial" size="2"><span
style="font-size: 10pt; font-family: Arial;">(<a
href="http://www.intel.com">http://www.intel.com</a>)</span></font><o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><font color="black" face="Times New Roman"
size="3"><span style="font-size: 12pt;"> </span><o:p></o:p></font></p>
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Gerry,<br>
<br>
Thats a really good point. I forgot about the 800 number, the question
is if an 800 or 888 number is tied to a local number does the caller ID
information get passed onto the customer even if caller ID has been
disabled on the senders end. In other words you are right that the
telco has to have the number for billing but would they pass that onto
after capturing that data for their billing. I am not familiar enough
to know how this would be handled so if anyone knows for sure I would
appreciate a response.<br>
<br>
Thanks<br>
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