[asterisk-dev] Dualstack

Simon Perreault simon.perreault at viagenie.ca
Thu Jun 14 10:54:57 CDT 2012


Le 12-06-14 11:36, Pawel Kuzak a écrit :
> I have an Asterisk (v10.2.0) running and bound to address "::". I think
> this way he listens and answers to requests send to the IPv4 and IPv6
> address (haven't check that with IPv6 yet). What I want to achieve is,
> that he handles signaling via IPv4, but RTP via IPv6.
> In my setup, I have a user agent (Dualstack) that generates an INVITE
> and sends it out via IPv6. In the SDP part the user agent expects the
> RTP traffic on its IPv6 address as well. Between the user agent and the
> Asterisk, I have a proxy that handles the signaling part, and translates
> from IPv6 to IPv4 and vice versa. The Asterisk accepts that request
> (IPv4) and does everything well, except that in his SDP offer, he
> inserts his IPv4 address (I think that's because he received the request
> via IPv4).

Exactly. Without ICE, only a single address can be signalled in SDP. So 
Asterisk tries to match address families between RTP and SIP.

> The result of this is:
> The user agent sends RTP traffic via IPv4 to the Asterisk.
> The Asterisk sends RTP traffic via IPv6 to the user agent.
>
> Signaling: UA <---- (IPv6) ----> Proxy <---- (IPv4) ----> Asterisk
> RTP: UA ------------------- (IPv4) --------------------> Asterisk
>          UA <----------------- (IPv6) ---------------------- Asterisk
>
> IS there a way I can achieve that Asterisk does input his IPv6 address
> in the SDP offer and uses that for incoming RTP, if he sees, that the
> user agent also uses an IPv6 address in his SDP offer?

Maybe by hardcoding the address? I don't remember, but there should be a 
parameter in sip.conf for this. Maybe others can help.

Simon



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