[asterisk-dev] IAX Hardphone (again)

Bill Shaw b.shaw at comcast.net
Sat Dec 3 13:28:56 CST 2011

Did I misunderstand the calltoken usage?  I thought I was to send a 
calltoken with 0 length data in my 'new' to indicate to the PBX that I 
could handle call tokens?  No?

I did a packet capture and uploaded a short Wireshark capture file to:



On 12/3/2011 2:20 PM, Tilghman Lesher wrote:
> On Sat, Dec 3, 2011 at 9:56 AM, Bill Shaw<b.shaw at comcast.net>  wrote:
>> Initially I thought the issue might be that I had not implemented call
>> tokens - they weren't called out in the RFC so I missed it in the first
>> round.  I added in call tokens last week,  but get the same result -
>> Asterisk just ignores my 'new' - no error message,  no indications at all
>> that anything is wrong - just ignores the packet.
> If you're transmitting the CALLTOKEN IE in the initial NEW, that's what's
> wrong.  You have to first send a NEW packet without the CALLTOKEN,
> receive the response back (from source call 1), then retransmit the NEW
> with the CALLTOKEN from that received packet appended to your NEW.
> But a packet capture would definitely confirm that this is the problem.  The
> fact that you're not receiving anything back suggests that the NEW
> contained a CALLTOKEN that the receiving end could not validate, and
> thus, no further contact was warranted.
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