[asterisk-dev] IAX Hardphone (again)
b.shaw at comcast.net
Sat Dec 3 13:28:56 CST 2011
Did I misunderstand the calltoken usage? I thought I was to send a
calltoken with 0 length data in my 'new' to indicate to the PBX that I
could handle call tokens? No?
I did a packet capture and uploaded a short Wireshark capture file to:
On 12/3/2011 2:20 PM, Tilghman Lesher wrote:
> On Sat, Dec 3, 2011 at 9:56 AM, Bill Shaw<b.shaw at comcast.net> wrote:
>> Initially I thought the issue might be that I had not implemented call
>> tokens - they weren't called out in the RFC so I missed it in the first
>> round. I added in call tokens last week, but get the same result -
>> Asterisk just ignores my 'new' - no error message, no indications at all
>> that anything is wrong - just ignores the packet.
> If you're transmitting the CALLTOKEN IE in the initial NEW, that's what's
> wrong. You have to first send a NEW packet without the CALLTOKEN,
> receive the response back (from source call 1), then retransmit the NEW
> with the CALLTOKEN from that received packet appended to your NEW.
> But a packet capture would definitely confirm that this is the problem. The
> fact that you're not receiving anything back suggests that the NEW
> contained a CALLTOKEN that the receiving end could not validate, and
> thus, no further contact was warranted.
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