[asterisk-dev] SIP compliance question

[Klaus Darilion]

Roy Sigurd Karlsbakk wrote:
>>>> yes - using the IP address in a sip URI is possible, but your 
>>>> Provider [asterisk]
>>>> uses the IP Adress of the SwyxServer in the uri ~INVITE
>>>> sip:+4721973541 at 80.239.107.95:65002 SIP/2.0
>>>>
>>>> thats the wrong part - he must use a) his realm or b) his public IP
>>>> address.
>>>
>>> thanks for any help
>>
>> btw, this is not the realm, they mean SIP domain. "Realm" is only used in
>> authentication. Please ask them to read the RFC :-)
>>
>> The Swyx server seems to me to have some strange things in their 
>> implementation.
> 
> Anyway, is it true as they say that Asterisk is supposed to use its own 
> IP in the INVITE?

Maybe in the From header, but not in the request URI. The host part in 
the request URI (initial INVITE) reflects the domain which is 
authoritative/responsible for this destination. Thus, if user A from 
domainA sends to user B from domainB a SIP message, the request URI in 
the message sent from domainA to domainB must be sip:foobar at domainB. 
Note: domainB may be a FQDN or an IP address (with or without port).

If the SWYX server requrires the request URI to contain Asterisk's IP 
address, then this is very strange. (Have you ever seen a HTTP GET 
request where the URI in the GET line is the IP address of your web 
browser? The request URI is the destination).

regards
klaus