[asterisk-dev] SIP compliance question
Roy Sigurd Karlsbakk
roy at karlsbakk.net
Tue Oct 17 06:34:22 MST 2006
>>>>> yes - using the IP address in a sip URI is possible, but your
>>>>> Provider [asterisk]
>>>>> uses the IP Adress of the SwyxServer in the uri ~INVITE
>>>>> sip:+4721973541 at 80.239.107.95:65002 SIP/2.0
>>>>>
>>>>> thats the wrong part - he must use a) his realm or b) his
>>>>> public IP
>>>>> address.
>>>>
>>>> thanks for any help
>>>
>>> btw, this is not the realm, they mean SIP domain. "Realm" is only
>>> used in
>>> authentication. Please ask them to read the RFC :-)
>>>
>>> The Swyx server seems to me to have some strange things in their
>>> implementation.
>>
>> Anyway, is it true as they say that Asterisk is supposed to use
>> its own IP in the INVITE?
>
> In the INVITE uri?????
>
> I wonder if these guys have read the executive summary of the
> RFC... He he.
>
> This discussion is far away from ASterisk development. I guess we
> could sell SWYX
> some SIP consulting.
Now what's strange, is that it might look like SWYX may be right
here. Paragraph 4 in section 4 in the RFC says:
Alice "calls" Bob using his SIP identity, a type of Uniform Resource
Identifier (URI) called a SIP URI. SIP URIs are defined in Section
19.1. It has a similar form to an email address, typically
containing a username and a host name. In this case, it is
sip:bob at biloxi.com, where biloxi.com is the domain of Bob's SIP
service provider....
This somehow implies that asterisk, when dialling back, should
default to using it's own domain name in the host part in the INVITE,
right?
roy
--
Roy Sigurd Karlsbakk
roy at karlsbakk.net
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