[asterisk-dev] Getting IP of host when not NATted (technical code
question)
jezzzz .
jezonthenet at yahoo.com
Tue Dec 12 12:47:54 MST 2006
To get this right, if I am using NAT then I will use
whatever the user who sent the invite included in the
header, so just the hostname at domain.com, so that it's
easier/faster to respond? (no need to do the whole IP
address lookup because user in same domain?). In case
the user is _not_ using NAT, so each user has his own
IP address, then we must lookup the IP address. Is
that correct?
Why is it a violation of the SIP spec, simply because
you're not always doing an IP lookup?
Thanks
Jez
>>
Yes, because if a phone is coming in from behind NAT,
then you want to respond to the same host and port
from which you received the packet, not necessarily
the host which is encoded within. It's a technical
violation of the SIP spec, but it also tends to make
things work the way it is desired.
--
Tilghman
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